To clear up the Brit proof thing.
It is an offence to have a firearm with no proof marks at all
Is this correct? I have a gun made before proof was compulsory.
My understanding is that;
It is an offence to SELL a gun that REQUIRES PROOF and is not in current proof. i.e.
possession of an 'out of proof' gun is not an offence, and possession or selling a gun that
did not require proof is not an offence.
I may well be wrong, but I have been informed that to own my 1810 built gun which bears no proof marks is not an offence - and nor would it be an offence to sell it because it was made before proof became a legal requirement.
