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Is this correct??? I would think that once the proposed buyer 'recieved' the gun from his FFL and it has been 'transferred' to him, a return to the seller would be a 're-transfer' and have to go through an FFL.


Newbern seems correct, but only if the gun has been transfered to the buyer. If the buyer refuses the gun, then there is almost certainly no transfer. If the transfer has occurred, then, by default, the buyer has "accepted" it. Just say no.