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If the gun is refused by the "buyer", it may certainly be returned directly to the "seller", as it is still HIS gun. No FFL is required on the seller's end for this.


If the gun is REFUSED by the buyer, and if it has NOT BEEN TRANSFERRED by the FFL, then is it not still the property of the seller, since the transaction has not been completed? The buyer does not own it at that point (or does he?), the FFL does not own it, so it would seem that shipping it back to the "owner" (i.e., the seller) would be completely legal. If no transfer has occurred, has the transaction been completed to convey ownership? I think not. Where are the contract lawyers?